
[Aug 18, 2026] Get New 250-614 Practice Test Questions Answers
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NEW QUESTION # 17
When an endpoint is compromised and quarantined, which online resource is available to remediate the infection?
- A. SymDiag
- B. LiveUpdate
- C. Windows Update
- D. Security Response
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 18
Which environments are supported by Symantec Endpoint Security Complete deployments?
(Select all that apply)
- A. Hybrid cloud and on-premises environments
- B. Traditional on-premises environments
- C. Fully cloud-based environments
- D. Air-gapped environments only
Answer: A,B,C
NEW QUESTION # 19
An analyst needs to identify all endpoints that communicated with a suspicious IP address. Which ICDm capability should be used?
- A. Event Search
- B. Device Grouping
- C. Policy Versioning
- D. Alert Configuration
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 20
What information is typically available from SES Complete device management views?
- A. Domain controller replication status
- B. Network switch configuration
- C. User password history
- D. Endpoint operating system and status
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 21
Which security capability helps prevent threats from maintaining persistence on endpoints?
- A. Cloud telemetry
- B. Application Control
- C. Device grouping
- D. Policy versioning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 22
Which data sources are typically reviewed during an ICDm investigation?
(Select all that apply)
- A. Policy assignment history
- B. Network activity logs
- C. Endpoint telemetry
- D. Alert details
Answer: B,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 23
What is the purpose of Adaptive Protection's Monitor mode?
- A. To deny unusual application behavior
- B. To view the results of Symantec's behavioral global intelligence data analytics
- C. To gain visibility into the operational impact of unusual behavior
- D. To create a list of risky application behaviors
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 24
Why is Active Directory (AD) a high-value target for attackers?
- A. It stores endpoint antivirus signatures
- B. It replaces endpoint security agents
- C. It manages endpoint content updates
- D. It controls authentication and authorization across the enterprise
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 25
Which control is most effective against zero-day threats?
- A. Manual analysis
- B. Signature-based detection
- C. Machine Learning
- D. Policy versioning
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 26
What is the recommended first step for an administrator to perform when beginning a discover and deploy campaign?
- A. Disable the Windows firewall
- B. Configure the registry
- C. Install the first SES agent in the subnet
- D. Configure the SES policies and Groups
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 27
Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic involves maintaining access over time?
- A. Persistence
- B. Impact
- C. Discovery
- D. Initial Access
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 28
How are security policies applied to endpoints in SES Complete?
- A. Automatically based on threat severity
- B. Via manual endpoint configuration only
- C. Directly to individual users
- D. Through device groups
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 29
Which antimalware engine detects a malicious file created with a custom packet?
- A. Emulator
- B. Sapient
- C. Core3
- D. SONAR
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which statement best summarizes attack surface reduction in SES Complete?
- A. It minimizes exploitable endpoint behaviors
- B. It focuses only on network traffic
- C. It replaces detection and response
- D. It is limited to initial access prevention
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 31
An analyst wants to understand how a threat entered the environment. Which EDR feature supports this analysis?
- A. Device grouping
- B. Event timeline reconstruction
- C. Alert suppression
- D. Policy versioning
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 32
Which report format is supported in Symantec Endpoint Security?
- A. PDF
- B. XML
- C. HTML
- D. Text
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which methods can be used to enroll endpoint agents into SES Complete?
(Select all that apply)
- A. ICDm automatic discovery
- B. Manual installation
- C. Group Policy deployment
- D. Cloud console invitation
Answer: B,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 34
An endpoint is confirmed to be compromised. Which EDR action should be taken first to limit lateral movement?
- A. Reassign device group
- B. Update content definitions
- C. Isolate the endpoint
- D. Generate a report
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which criteria can be used to organize devices into groups?
(Select all that apply)
- A. Operating system type
- B. Threat severity level
- C. Business unit requirements
- D. Organizational function
Answer: A,C,D
NEW QUESTION # 36
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